PMP Sample questions – Planning

1. What is the primary output of the Develop Project Management Plan process?

A. Project charter
B. Scope management plan
C. Project management plan
D. Work breakdown structure

Answer: C. Project management plan
Explanation: This is the key output of the Develop Project Management Plan process, which integrates and consolidates all subsidiary plans.


2. Which of the following best defines rolling wave planning?

A. Planning done only at the beginning of the project
B. Detailed planning for all project phases upfront
C. Progressive elaboration of the work to be done in the near term
D. Planning using Monte Carlo simulation

Answer: C. Progressive elaboration of the work to be done in the near term
Explanation: Rolling wave planning allows for detailed planning in the near term, while future work is planned at a higher level.


3. What is the correct sequence of scope-related planning processes?

A. Collect Requirements → Create WBS → Define Scope
B. Define Scope → Create WBS → Collect Requirements
C. Collect Requirements → Define Scope → Create WBS
D. Define Scope → Collect Requirements → Create WBS

Answer: C. Collect Requirements → Define Scope → Create WBS
Explanation: Requirements are collected first, then scope is defined, followed by creating the WBS.


4. What is the purpose of the Schedule Baseline?

A. To document the planned start and finish dates for project activities
B. To update the project charter
C. To ensure all risks are identified
D. To estimate project costs

Answer: A. To document the planned start and finish dates for project activities
Explanation: The schedule baseline is the approved version of the project schedule used for comparison with actual performance.


5. During cost planning, which technique is used to estimate costs based on previous similar projects?

A. Parametric estimating
B. Analogous estimating
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Three-point estimating

Answer: B. Analogous estimating
Explanation: Analogous estimating uses historical data from similar projects as a basis for cost estimation.


6. Which document defines how the project scope will be validated and controlled?

A. Scope management plan
B. Scope baseline
C. Requirements management plan
D. Project charter

Answer: A. Scope management plan
Explanation: It outlines how the scope will be defined, validated, and controlled throughout the project.


7. What is a key input to the Define Activities process?

A. Activity list
B. Schedule baseline
C. Scope baseline
D. Milestone list

Answer: C. Scope baseline
Explanation: The scope baseline includes the WBS, WBS dictionary, and project scope statement, which are essential for defining activities.


8. Which tool or technique is used during the Determine Budget process to align costs with funding limits?

A. Reserve analysis
B. Cost aggregation
C. Funding limit reconciliation
D. Earned value analysis

Answer: C. Funding limit reconciliation
Explanation: This ensures planned expenditures align with available funding and avoids large variances.


9. What does a responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) depict?

A. Resource histogram
B. Team performance evaluations
C. Relationship between activities
D. Who does what on the project

Answer: D. Who does what on the project
Explanation: A RAM, such as a RACI chart, identifies roles and responsibilities.


10. In risk planning, what is the purpose of a risk register?

A. To track issues
B. To record identified risks and their characteristics
C. To define quality metrics
D. To establish scope boundaries

Answer: B. To record identified risks and their characteristics
Explanation: The risk register is a living document that captures identified risks, their responses, and status.